Au in Cancer chemotherapy

my topic is Au in Cancer chemotherapy, The paper should be a critical review of my chosen topic like (Chem. Rev. or Adv. Inorg. Chem format). it has to be 9 pages with tables, graphs or diagrams. Word processed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1-1.5″ margins. References should be cited in J. Am. Chem. Soc. format. And Web contents should not exceed 30%.

Claim: “How to Increase Height by 2-4 Inches in 45 Days

assignment one page or more.

Multi-Part Assignment

PART I. The central goal of this assignment is to equip you with the skills to evaluate the plausibility of scientific claims made by commercial enterprises to influence consumerism and alter behavior. For this particular assignment, you are tasked with identifying a product (e.g., natural remedy, weight loss supplement, strength builder, natural pain analgesic, natural aphrodisiacs, etc) for which you will seek to evaluate whether or not the claims by the manufacturer made are true. Part I of the assignment is worth 25 points.

The claim made by the makers of the product must be clearly stated.

In order to illustrate the type of claim submi

ssions that are eligible for this assignment,

I have listed several articles that foc

us on provocative claims that have been

accepted by mainstream media as viable soluti

ons for the condition it is purported to

treat.

•Black Seed Extract Cures& HIV Patients Naturally.

•Can Flatulence (Farts) Cure Cancer?

•SlimFreezer Lose Weight Fast

.

•Acupuncture Natural Treatment for Type II & Diabetes

•Chocolate Intake during Pregnancy Reduce the Risk of Preeclampsia.

•Ketogenic Diet Cure Cancer.

•Fecal Microbiota Transplant & to Treat Clostridium Difficile

Infection.

Devry nr508 week 1 quiz 2016 (100% Answer)

Question

1. Osteopenia is diagnosed in a 55-year-old woman who has not had a period in 15 months. She has a positive family history of breast cancer. The primary care NP should recommend:

testosterone therapy.

estrogen-only therapy.

nonhormonal drugs for osteoporosis.

estrogen-progesterone therapy for 1 to 2 years.

Question 2. A patient takes a cardiac medication that has a very narrow therapeutic range. The primary care NP learns that the particular brand the patient is taking is no longer covered by the patient’s medical plan. The NP knows that the bioavailability of the drug varies from brand to brand. The NP should:

contact the insurance provider to explain why this particular formulation is necessary.

change the patient’s medication to a different drug class that doesn’t have these bioavailability variations.

accept the situation and monitor the patient closely for drug effects with each prescription refill.

ask the pharmaceutical company that makes the drug for samples so that the patient does not incur out-of-pocket expense.

Question 3. A patient brings written information about a medication to a primary care NP about a new drug called Prism and wants to know if the NP will prescribe it. The NP notes that the information is from an internet site called “Prism.com.” The NP should tell this patient that:

this information is probably from a drug advertisement website.

this is factual, evidence-based material with accurate information.

the information is from a nonprofit group that will not profit from drug sales.

internet information is unreliable because anyone can post information there.

Question 4. A primary care NP is reviewing written information about a newly prescribed medication with a patient. To evaluate this patient’s understanding of the information, the NP should ask the patient to:

read the information aloud.

describe how the medication will be taken.

write down questions about the medication.

tell the NP if the information is unclear.

Question 5. A patient is diagnosed with lupus and reports occasional use of herbal supplements. The primary care NP should caution this patient to avoid:

ginseng.

echinacea.

ginkgo biloba.

St. John’s wort.

Question 6. A patient who has chronic pain and who takes oxycodone (Percodan) calls the clinic to ask for a refill of the medication. The primary care NP notes that the medication refill is not due for 2 weeks. The patient tells the NP that the refill is needed because he is going out of town. The NP should:

fill the prescription and document the patient’s explanation of the reason.

review the patient’s chart to see if this is a one-time or repeat occurrence.

call the patient’s pharmacist and report suspicion of drug-seeking behaviors.

confront the patient about misuse of narcotics and refuse to fill the prescription.

Question 7. The primary care NP prescribes an extended-cycle monophasic pill regimen for a young woman who reports having multiple partners.Which statement by the patient indicates she understands the regimen?

“I have to take a pill only every 3 months.”

“I should expect to have only four periods each year.”

“I will need to use condoms for only 7 more days.”

“This type of pill has fewer side effects than other types.”

Question 8. The primary care NP sees a patient covered by Medicaid, writes a prescription for a medication, and is informed by the pharmacist that the medication is “off-formulary.” The NP should:

inform the patient that an out-of-pocket expense will be necessary.

write the prescription for a generic drug if it meets the patient’s needs.

call the patient’s insurance provider to advocate for this particular drug.

contact the pharmaceutical company to see if medication samples are available.

Question 9. A 55-year-old woman has not had menstrual periods for 5 years and tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she is having increasingly frequent vasomotor symptoms. She has no family history or risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) or breast cancer but is concerned about these side effects of hormone therapy (HT). The NP should:

tell her that starting HT now may reduce her risk of breast cancer.

advise a short course of HT now that may decrease her risk for CHD.

tell her that HT will not help control her symptoms during postmenopause.

recommend herbal supplements for her symptoms to avoid HT side effects.

Question 10. A primary care NP recommends an over-the-counter medication for a patient who has acid reflux. When teaching the patient about this drug, the NP should tell the patient:

to take the dose recommended by the manufacturer.

not to worry about taking this drug with any other medications.

to avoid taking other drugs that cause sedation while taking this drug.

that over-the-counter acid reflux medications are generally safe to take with other medications.

Question 11. A patient will begin taking two drugs that are both protein-bound. The primary care NP should:

prescribe increased doses of both drugs.

monitor drug levels, actions, and side effects.

teach the patient to increase intake of protein.

stagger the doses of drugs to be given 1 hour apart.

Question 12. The primary care NP has referred a child who has significant gastrointestinal reflux disease to a specialist for consideration for a fundoplication and gastrostomy tube placement. The child’s weight is 80% of what is recommended for age, and a recent swallow study revealed significant risk for aspiration. The child’s parents do not want the procedure. The NP should:

compromise with the parents and order a nasogastric tube for feedings.

initiate a discussion with the parents about the potential outcomes of each possible action.

refer the family to a case manager who can help guide the parents to the best decision.

understand that the child’s parents have a right to make choices that override those of the medical team.

Question 13. A primary care NP is developing a clinical practice guideline for management of a patient population in a midsized suburban hospital. The NP should:

use an existing guideline from a leading research hospital.

follow the guideline provided by a third-party payer to help ensure reimbursement.

review expert opinion and experimental, anecdotal, correlational study data.

write the guideline to adhere to long-standing practice protocols already in use.

Question 14. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) writes a prescription for an antibiotic using an electronic drug prescription system. The pharmacist will fill this prescription when:

the electronic prescription is received.

the patient brings a written copy of the prescription.

a copy of the written prescription is faxed to the pharmacy.

the pharmacist accesses the patient’s electronic record to verify.

Question 15. A primary care NP is preparing to prescribe a drug and notes that the drug has nonlinear kinetics. The NP should:

monitor frequently for desired and adverse effects.

administer a much higher initial dose as a loading dose.

monitor creatinine clearance at baseline and periodically.

administer the drug via a route that avoids the first-pass effect.

Question 16. An important difference between physician assistants (PAs) and NPs is PAs:

always work under physician supervision.

are not required to follow drug treatment protocols.

may write for all drug categories with physician co-signatures.

have both inpatient and outpatient independent prescriptive authority.

Question 17. A primary care NP writes a prescription for an off-label use for a drug. To help ensure compliance, the NP should:

include information about the off-label use on the E-script.

provide the patient with written instructions about how to use the medication.

tell the patient to let the pharmacist know that the drug is being used for an off-label use.

follow up by phone in several days to see if the patient is using the drug appropriately.

Question 18. A patient reports taking antioxidant supplements to help prevent cancer. The primary care NP should:

review healthy dietary practices with this patient.

make sure that the supplements contain large doses of vitamin A.

tell the patient that antioxidants are especially important for patients who smoke.

tell the patient that evidence shows antioxidants to be effective in preventing cancer.

Question 19. A woman comes to the clinic to talk about weight reduction. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) calculates a body mass index (BMI) of 28. The woman’s waist measures 34 inches. The woman tells the NP that she would like to lose 20 lb for her daughter’s wedding in 6 months. The NP should:

suggest she try over-the-counter (OTC) orlistat.

consider prescribing phentermine short-term.

discuss her short-term and long-term weight loss goals.

give her information about physical activity and diet modification.

Question 20. A patient comes to the clinic and asks the primary care NP about using a newly developed formulation of the drug the patient has been taking for a year. When deciding whether or not to prescribe this formulation, the NP should:

tell the patient that when postmarketing data is available, it will be considered.

review the pharmaceutical company promotional materials about the new medication.

prescribe the medication if it is less expensive than the current drug formulation.

prescribe the medication if the new drug is available in an extended-release form.

Question 21. An adolescent girl has chosen Depo-Provera as a contraceptive method and tells the primary care NP that she likes the fact that she won’t have to deal with pills or periods. The primary care NP should tell her that she:

should consider another form of contraception after 1 year.

may have irregular bleeding, especially in the first month or so.

will need to take calcium and vitamin D every day while using this method.

will have to take oral contraceptive pills in addition to Depo-Provera when she takes antibiotics.

Question 22. A patient receives an inhaled corticosteroid to treat asthma. The patient asks the primary care NP why the drug is given by this route instead of orally. The NP should explain that the inhaled form:

is absorbed less quickly.

has reduced bioavailability.

has fewer systemic side effects.

provides dosing that is easier to regulate.

Question 23. A patient who has breast cancer has been taking toremifene for 2 weeks. She tells her primary care NP that she thinks her tumor has grown larger. The NP should:

schedule her for a breast ultrasound.

reassure her that this is common and will subside.

tell her she may need an increased dose of this medication.

contact her oncologist to discuss adding another medication.

Question 24. The primary care NP is prescribing a medication for an off-label use. To help prevent a medication error, the NP should:

write “off-label use” on the prescription and provide a rationale.

call the pharmacist to explain why the instructions deviate from common use.

write the alternative drug regimen on the prescription and send it to the pharmacy.

tell the patient to ignore the label directions and follow the verbal instructions given in the clinic.

Question 25. The primary care NP sees a woman who has been taking HT for menopausal symptoms for 3 years. The NP decreases the dosage, and several weeks later, the woman calls to report having several hot flashes each day. The NP should:

increase the HT dose.

discontinue HT.

recommend black cohosh to alleviate symptoms.

reassure her that these symptoms will diminish over time.

Devry nr508 week 6 quiz 2016 (Answer 25/25)

Question

1. Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

Osteomalacia

Paget disease

Osteoporosis

Osteosarcoma

Question 2. Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts.

ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts.

ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts.

ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts.

Question 3. _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

Dislocation

Subluxation

Malunion

Nonunion

Question 4. What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

Lateral epicondylitis

Medial tendinitis

Bursitis

Lateral tendinitis

Question 5. Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat a compound displaced fracture of the tibia and fibula?

Iatrogenic

Regional

Idiopathic

Osteoblastic

Question 6. Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is because of

formation of immune complexes at the site of infection.

localized ischemia.

TNF-? and IL-1.

impaired nerve innervation at the site of infection.

Question 7. By the time osteoporosis is visible on x-ray, up to ____% of bone has been lost.

30

40

50

60

Question 8. Osteochondrosis is caused by a(n)

imbalance between calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.

nutritional deficiency of calcium and phosphorus.

bacterial infection of the bone.

vascular impairment and trauma to bone.

Question 9. Ewing sarcoma arises from

bone marrow.

bone-producing mesenchymal cells.

metadiaphysis of long bones.

embryonal osteocytes.

Question 10. An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

C

B12

B6

D

Question 11. Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

Syntrophin

Laminin

Dystrophin

Troponin

Question 12. Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

Phosphorus

Calcium

Alkaline phosphatase

Total protein

Question 13. Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

brain ischemia during birth.

prematurity.

congenital defects.

genetic defect.

Question 14. What diagnosis is given when the infant’s hip maintains contact with the acetabulum, but is not well seated within the hip joint?

Dislocatable hip

Subluxated hip

Dislocated hip

Subluxable hip

Question 15. The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

Albumin

Blood urea nitrogen

Creatinine

Creatine

Question 16. Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck?

Squamous cell carcinoma

Kaposi sarcoma

Malignant melanoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 17. Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?

Endothelial

Keratinocyte

Melanocyte

Exothelial

Question 18. Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen.

immune complexes

IgE

complement

T lymphocytes

Question 19. Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?

Plaque

Inverse

Guttate

Erythrodermic

Question 20. An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of

Kaposi sarcoma.

malignant melanoma.

basal cell carcinoma.

squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 21. What is a common source of tinea corporis?

Mites

Kittens

Fleas

Ticks

Question 22. Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?

Rubella

Tinea capitis

Atopic dermatitis

Vesicular impetigo

Question 23. Bullous impetigo is caused by a strain of _____ that produces an exfoliative toxin, resulting in a disruption in cellular adhesion.

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

Escherichia coli

Candida albicans

Question 24. Which immunoglobulin is elevated in atopic dermatitis?

IgA

IgM

IgE

IgG

Question 25. Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

Papular rash

High fever

Vesicles that burst and form crusts

Itching

Devry nr508 week 7 quiz 2016 (All Correct)

Question

1. In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

Inappropriate diaphoresis, orthostatic hypotension, constipation, and urinary retention

Asymmetric, regular, rhythmic tremors with slow alternating flexion and extension contractions

Involuntary contractions of skeletal muscles that impair active and passive movement

Bradykinesia of chewing, swallowing, and articulation

Question 2. Which is a characteristic of brainstem death?

Vegetative state

Comatose

Apnea

Locked-in syndrome

Question 3. With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

respond in writing, but not in speech.

speak back, but not comprehend speech.

comprehend speech, but not respond verbally.

respond verbally, but not comprehend speech.

Question 4. The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

arterial blood.

venous blood.

cerebral cells.

Question 5. Dementia is characterized by

deficits in attention and coherence of thought.

easy distractibility and poor concentration.

loss of recent and remote memory.

irritability, agitation, and restlessness.

Question 6. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

Paroxysmal

Tardive

Hyperkinesia

Cardive

Question 7. Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?

Vestibular nuclei in the lower pons and medulla oblongata

Floor of the third ventricle

Vestibular nuclei in the midbrain

Diencephalon

Question 8. Cognitive operations cannot occur without the _____ functioning.

pons

medulla oblongata

reticular activating system

cingulate gyrus

Question 9. What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

Headache, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure

Confusion, irritability, and retrograde amnesia

Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis

Hypertension, neurogenic shock, and tachycardia

Question 10. Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headaches?

Aura before the headache with photophobia and nausea and vomiting

Severe unilateral tearing, burning, or temporal pain

Gradual onset of bilateral pain with sensation of a tight band around the head

Throbbing headache with intermittent burning sensation

Question 11. A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is

experiencing acute anxiety.

developing spinal shock.

developing autonomic hyperreflexia.

experiencing parasympathetic areflexia.

Question 12. The most severe diffuse brain injury caused by rotational acceleration is most likely to be located in the

diencephalon to the brainstem.

medial portion of the brainstem.

entire brainstem.

diencephalon.

Question 13. Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?

Dopamine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Acetylcholine

Serotonin

Question 14. Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

Blunted affect

Auditory hallucinations

Poverty of speech

Lack of social interaction

Question 15. Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system abnormalities exist in a large percentage of individuals with

schizophrenia.

major depression.

mania.

panic disorder.

Question 16. The life-threatening problems associated with myelomeningocele include

upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon.

motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele.

downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle.

encephalitis causing generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus.

Question 17. The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

second

fourth

eighth

twelfth

Question 18. Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

brain and skull.

spinal cord.

vertebrae.

peripheral nerves.

Question 19. Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

Pancreatic acinar cells metabolize ethanol, which generates toxic metabolites.

Injury to the pancreatic acinar cells permits leakage of pancreatic enzymes that digest pancreatic tissue.

Acute pancreatitis is an autoimmune disease in which IgG coats the pancreatic acinar cells so they are destroyed by the pancreatic enzymes.

When gallstones are present, bile flows into the pancreas, contributing to attacks.

Question 20. The desire to eat is stimulated by

agouti-related protein (AgRP).

alpha-melanocyte–stimulating hormone (?-MSH).

cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART).

peptide YY (PYY).

Question 21. The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is

leukopenia.

thrombocytopenia.

erythrocytopenia.

pancytopenia.

Question 22. Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes

cleft palate.

sinus dysfunction.

cleft lip.

esophageal malformation.

Question 23. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been fed well and gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting has gradually become more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?

Esophageal atresia

Congenital aganglionic megacolon

Pyloric stenosis

Galactosemia

Question 24. Hepatitis _____ in children is primarily associated with blood transfusions.

A

B

C

D

Question 25. Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.

cecum

ileus

obstruction

vivax

ISSA exercise therapy final exam, Learning experience short essay question.

Learning Experience 5

List all the conditions that lead to COPD. List all the medications a client with COPD might be taking along with their effects on exercise. Then research what would be the correct intensity for someone with a mild to moderate level of COPD to exercise at. Design a comprehensive fitness program for someone with COPD. Then teach yourself what it feels like to exercise at certain MET intensities such as 3 to 4 METs and 5 to 6 METs

Define acute and chronic stress, health and medicine homework help

Now study this diagram showing how the body responds to stressful stimuli. Notice that short-term stress follows one signaling pathway that begins in the brain, travels out the spinal cord, and directly to the adrenal glands. Many organs of the body will receive direct stress response messages using this pathway as well. When the adrenal glands receive the signal from this pathway, they release a stress hormone that signals many systems in the body to prepare to either run away from the stressor (such as a predator or an oncoming vehicle, for example), or fight. The part of the nervous system that activates this response to acute stress is called the sympathetic nervous system. After the stressful stimulus has passed, the parasympathetic (nicknamed the “rest and digest” response) calms the nervous system and restores the normal function of the body systems, maintaining homeostasis.

The Sympathetic vs. Parasympathetic Nervous Systems

These two divisions of the nervous system counteract each other to allow the body to receive the resources it needs to respond to a life-threatening situation (more glucose to the brain to enhance thinking ability, more oxygen and sugars to the muscles to run, etc.), and then return to a relaxed state. As you saw in the diagram, the sympathetic response begins when a stressful situation is detected by your sensory nerves, which make up the peripheral nervous system, or PNS. The sensory nerve endings can deliver this message directly to the brain through cranial nerves, which gather the information we need to give us the senses of smell, sight, hearing, and taste. Stress stimuli can also be detected by peripheral nerve endings throughout the body and delivered to the brain via the spinal cord. The brain and the spinal cord make up the central nervous system, or CNS.

View this diagram to review the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

Notice that the “rest and digest” (parasympathetic) message is delivered through cranial nerves that originate in the brain stem, and sacral nerves that originate in the sacrum at the end of the spinal cord. The “fight or flight” (sympathetic) response originates from the spinal cord. These nerve impulses are delivered by the CNS to the effector organs responsible for reacting to the situation by either simulating the organ to take action, or calming (inhibiting) the organ to return homeostasis. In this situation, the nervous system sends a signal to the endocrine system to handle acute, or short-term stress.

When the body is faced with long-term, or chronic stress, the endocrine system predominantly responds by releasing hormones such as cortisol. You will learn more about cortisol in the next module.

Read Understanding the Stress Response in Harvard Health Publications, published by the Harvard Medical School.

From your reading address the following:

  1. Define acute and chronic stress. Provide examples.
  2. What region of the brain detects stress and interprets the stimulus as dangerous? What is its function, and where does it relay the signal that conveys the danger? What format is the signal in? What is the role of the region of the brain that receives the stress alert?
  3. What is a hormone? What hormones are involved in the stress response? When are hormones released in the stress response?
  4. What is the HPA and what role does it play in the stress response?
  5. What recommendations are given to counter stress?